I was reading the first letter of John and there at the end of the fourth verse (1 John 1:4) I found a little "a" and at the bottom of the page it said "Other ancient manuscripts read your". Well that was it, I just could not contain myself. Should it be "our" or "your"? What's the difference? My research project was underway and dusty books flew off my shelves.
Well you see there is actually a very big difference. John had just been doing his hard hit evangelism. "What was from the beginning, what we saw, what we heard, what we touched, we pass on to you ... basically that Jesus brings God's gift of eternal life" and then he goes on to say, "we told you all this so that your joy could be complete". Well no he doesn't. That is what we would expect him to say, but actually he says "so that our joy may be complete". In fact it seems (and this is where my footnote archaeology came in handy) that some of those ancient monks who copied out the Bible by hand so many times (and wouldn't you be getting tired by the time you got to 1 John and only broth for lunch?) so much expected John to say "your joy" that they ended up writting that even though the Bible they were copying said "our joy".
So why am I getting so worked up about this "our/your" business. Well, because it makes ALL the difference to how we think about evangelism. When the point of evangelism is to make your joy complete, I'm just doing good for your sake - I'm basically a 'do-gooder' but when I grasp that the whole point of evangelism is to make our (my) joy complete we are into a whole different ball game. If you receive the good news of Jesus Christ, if you start to follow Him, I gain a new sister or brother, I have someone new with whom to fellowship, etc. etc. ... my joy is completed. Wow - thank you footnote.
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